Updated Dec-2024 CQE Exam Practice Test Questions [Q21-Q45]

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Updated Dec-2024 CQE Exam Practice Test Questions

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NEW QUESTION # 21
Given that the population standard deviation is 6.8, what sample size is required to be 90% confident that the estimated mean has an error less than 0.02?

  • A. 152,083
  • B. 189,859
  • C. 312,761
  • D. 175,987

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 22
If the mean time between failures (MTBF) for a device is 200 hours, what is the constant failure rate per hour?

  • A. 0.005
  • B. 0.500
  • C. 0.002
  • D. 0.200

Answer: C

Explanation:
The constant failure rate per hour is calculated as the inverse of the mean time between failures (MTBF).
Given an MTBF of 200 hours: Failure rate () = 1 / MTBF = 1 / 200 = 0.005


NEW QUESTION # 23
The failure rate model above is used to show a typical relationship of many parts between their failure rate and the time in service. The reliability function for period "B" is BEST represented by

  • A. Option B
  • B. Option D
  • C. Option C
  • D. Option A

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 24
In obtaining Total Customer Satisfaction, management should NOT undertake which of the following activities?

  • A. Coordinate efforts of the departments.
  • B. Encourage team competition.
  • C. Use employee involvement and teamwork.
  • D. Encourage sacrificing for the team.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 25
A test-retest study is performed to a coordinate measuring machine (CMM) using a working standard of
100.00 ± 0.001 mm (95% confidence). The length of the standard is measured 30 rimes. The mean and standard deviation of the measurements are x = 107.883 mm and 5 = 2.497 mm. All of the measurements are made are the same location on the standard and are taken by the same technician, who mounts and dismounts the unit for each measurement.
The precision of the CMM is estimated to be

  • A. 12.735
  • B. 7.833
  • C. 0.456
  • D. 2.497

Answer: D

Explanation:
The precision of the Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM) is estimated by its standard deviation in repeated measurements, which is given as 2.497 mm. This value represents the precision of the measurements as it reflects the spread or variability in the measurement data.References:
* Introduction to Statistical Quality Control by Douglas C. Montgomery.
* ASQ Quality Press: The Certified Quality Engineer Handbook.


NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following statements BEST describes a bimodal distribution?

  • A. This distribution shows stratified data and two distinct peaks.
  • B. This distribution shows a single mode and bell shaped distribution.
  • C. This distribution has several distribution peaks.
  • D. This distribution is truncated.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 27
Working on ail design phases simultaneously is characteristic of

  • A. design for reliability
  • B. concurrent engineering
  • C. design for six sigma
  • D. quality function deployment

Answer: B

Explanation:
Concurrent engineering is an approach to product development where multiple phases of the design process are carried out simultaneously to reduce time-to-market and improve product quality.
Concurrent engineering is a systematic approach to integrated product development that emphasizes the parallelization of tasks (i.e., performing tasks concurrently), which contrasts with the traditional sequential engineering design method.


NEW QUESTION # 28
The authority for a customer to perform audits at a supplier's facility can usually be found in the customer's

  • A. auditor training records
  • B. certificate of conformance
  • C. quality management system documents
  • D. contracts or purchasing agreements

Answer: D

Explanation:
The authority for customer audits at a supplier's facility is typically outlined in contracts or purchasing agreements.
These documents specify the terms and conditions under which the supplier agrees to allow audits by the customer.
Quality management system documents and certificates of conformance do not usually grant audit authority.
References: The ASQ "Auditing Handbook" and ISO 9001 standards emphasize that contractual agreements define the rights and obligations regarding audits.


NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following problem-solving tools is a column graph which displays a static picture of the process?

  • A. Control chart.
  • B. Cause and effect diagram.
  • C. Histogram.
  • D. Pareto chart.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 30
During the causes of a problem have been verified in the analysis phase of a six sigma project, they will form the basis of the solution in Much of the following phases?

  • A. Define
  • B. Measure
  • C. Improve
  • D. Control

Answer: C

Explanation:
In Six Sigma projects, the phases are defined by DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control).
* Control:
* Ensures the improvements are sustained over time but does not primarily focus on implementing the solutions.
* Define:
* Focuses on defining the problem and project scope.
* Improve:
* This phase is where solutions are developed and implemented based on the analysis.
* Verified causes identified in the analysis phase are used to create solutions during the improve phase.
* Measure:
* Involves quantifying the problem but not implementing solutions.
References: Six Sigma methodologies and project management resources.


NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following problem-solving tools is a column graph which displays a static picture of the process?

  • A. Control chart.
  • B. Cause and effect diagram.
  • C. Histogram.
  • D. Pareto chart.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following tools should be used to break a broad goal into increasingly detailed levels?

  • A. Matrix diagram
  • B. Interrelationship digraph
  • C. Tree diagram
  • D. Affinity diagram

Answer: C

Explanation:
A tree diagram is a tool used to break down broad goals into increasingly detailed levels. It starts with a central concept and branches out into finer levels of detail, similar to the structure of a tree. This helps in understanding the various components of a goal and how they relate to one another, facilitating a step-by-step approach to achieving the objective.
References:
* ASQ (American Society for Quality). (n.d.). Tree Diagram. Retrieved from
https://asq.org/quality-resources/tree-diagram
* Tague, N.R. (2004). The Quality Toolbox. ASQ Quality Press.


NEW QUESTION # 33
The audit team normally advises the auditee immediately upon the discovery of a finding during an audit.
Which of the following items is (are) valid reasons for taking this action?
I. If corrected immediately, the findings may be eliminated from the audit report.
II. If corrected immediately, it shows genuine auditee interest in the objectives of the audit.
III. If corrected immediately, it demonstrates the strength of an ongoing audit program.

  • A. II and III only
  • B. III only
  • C. I, II and III
  • D. I only

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 34
How many outcomes are possible when performing a single trial of a binomial experiment?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 35
What distribution is used to determine the OC curve for an attributes sampling plan?

  • A. Exponential.
  • B. Normal.
  • C. The binomial or the hypergeometric distribution.
  • D. Binomial.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 36
An auditor who finds a major discrepancy during a pre-award audit of a new supplier should take which of the following actions?

  • A. Include the discrepancy in the final report
  • B. Investigate the cause of the discrepancy
  • C. Verify prompt corrective action
  • D. Issue a stop-work request

Answer: A

Explanation:
When an auditor finds a major discrepancy during a pre-award audit of a new supplier, the appropriate action is to include the discrepancy in the final report. This documentation is essential for transparency and for the organization to make informed decisions regarding the supplier. While other actions like verifying corrective actions and investigating the cause are important, they are typically follow-up steps after the discrepancy has been officially recorded.


NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following quantitative methods does NOT apply to the assessment of actual system/ component reliability?

  • A. Statistical analysis of field test and failure data.
  • B. Evaluation of laboratory test data.
  • C. Analysis of results of reliability demonstration tests.
  • D. Statistical allocation of reliability goals.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 38
A single sampling plan calls for a sample size of 80 with an acceptance number of five and a rejection number of six If the quality of the submitted lots 10 percent defective. then the percent of lots expected to be accepted in the long run is approximately.

  • A. 30%
  • B. 6%
  • C. 10%
  • D. 20%

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following activities assesses the maturity of product or system design?

  • A. Production readiness system
  • B. Critical design review
  • C. Preliminary design
  • D. System requirement

Answer: B

Explanation:
A critical design review (CDR) is an assessment of the product or system design's maturity, ensuring that it meets the specified requirements and is ready to proceed to the next development stage. It evaluates design performance, reliability, and readiness for production.
References:
* INCOSE. (2015). Systems Engineering Handbook: A Guide for System Life Cycle Processes and Activities. Wiley.
* NASA. (2016). Systems Engineering Handbook. NASA SP-2016-6105 Rev 2.


NEW QUESTION # 40
A test-retest study is performed to a coordinate measuring machine (CMM) using a working standard of
100.00 ± 0.001 mm (95% confidence). The length of the standard is measured 30 rimes. The mean and standard deviation of the measurements are x = 107.88: mm and 5 = 2.497 mm. All of the measurements are made are the same location on the standard and are taken by the same technician, who mounts and dismounts the unit for each measurement.
The necessary correction for the CMM is estimated to be

  • A. 7.883 mm
  • B. -7.883 rum
  • C. -2.497 mm
  • D. 2.497 mm

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correction for the CMM is determined by the difference between the measured mean and the standard value.
The necessary correction is calculated as follows:Correction=Standard ValueMeasured Mean\text{Correction}
= \text{Standard Value} - \text{Measured
Mean}Correction=Standard ValueMeasured MeanCorrection=100.00107.88=7.88 mm\text{Correction} =
100.00 - 107.88 = -7.88 \text{ mm}Correction=100.00107.88=7.88 mm
The correction should be applied in such a way to adjust the measurements to the standard value.


NEW QUESTION # 41
A single sampling plan calls for a sample size of 80 with an acceptance number of five and a rejection number of six If the quality of the submitted lots 10 percent defective. then the percent of lots expected to be accepted in the long run is approximately.

  • A. 30%
  • B. 6%
  • C. 10%
  • D. 20%

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following would be considered the WEAKEST reason to initiate an audit?

  • A. Verify that a quality system continues to meet requirements.
  • B. Identify the root cause of a recent problem.
  • C. Follow-up on corrective action.
  • D. To compare actual practice to a defined standard.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 43
A lot is known to be 1.2% defective. Five units are randomly selected from the lot, and the lot is accepted if 1 or fewer defects are found. What is the probability of the lot being rejected?

  • A. 0.9985
  • B. 0.00173
  • C. 0.00223
  • D. 0.01

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:


NEW QUESTION # 44
In most cases, an improvement team facilitator will NOT normally:

  • A. Function as the group leader.
  • B. Summarize key ideas generated by the group.
  • C. Provide feedback to the group.
  • D. Be familiar with problem solving techniques.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 45
......


The CQE certification is highly valued by employers and is often a requirement for quality engineering positions. Certified Quality EngineerExam certification demonstrates an individual's commitment to quality and their ability to apply quality engineering principles to improve processes and products. It also provides a competitive advantage in the job market by distinguishing certified individuals from their non-certified peers.

 

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