New 2023 Latest Questions DS0-001 Dumps - Use Updated CompTIA Exam
Latest DS0-001 Exam Dumps CompTIA Exam from Training Expert PrepAwayTest
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following best describes the category of SQL commands required to revoke access to database objects?
- A. DCL
- B. TCL
- C. IDML
- D. IDDL
Answer: A
Explanation:
The category of SQL commands that is required to revoke access to database objects is DCL. DCL, or Data Control Language, is a subset of SQL commands that are used to control or manage the access or permissions of users or roles on a database. DCL includes commands such as GRANT and REVOKE. GRANT is a DCL command that is used to grant privileges or roles to users or roles on specific objects in a database, such as tables, views, procedures, etc. REVOKE is a DCL command that is used to revoke privileges or roles from users or roles on specific objects in a database. For example, the following statement uses the REVOKE command to revoke the SELECT privilege from user Alice on table employee:
REVOKE SELECT ON employee FROM Alice;
The other options are either different categories of SQL commands or not related to SQL commands at all. For example, IDDL is not a valid acronym or category of SQL commands; IDML is not a valid acronym or category of SQL commands; TCL, or Transaction Control Language, is a subset of SQL commands that are used to control or manage transactions on a database, such as committing or rolling back changes. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following is an attack in which an attacker hopes to profit from locking the database software?
- A. Spear phishing
- B. Ransomware
- C. On-path
- D. SQL injection
Answer: B
Explanation:
The attack in which an attacker hopes to profit from locking the database software is ransomware. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the data or files on a system or network and demands a ransom from the victim to restore them. Ransomware can target database software and lock its access or functionality until the victim pays the ransom, usually in cryptocurrency. Ransomware can cause serious damage and loss to the victim, as well as expose them to further risks or threats. Ransomware can be delivered through various methods, such as phishing emails, malicious attachments, compromised websites, etc. The other options are either different types of attacks or not related to locking database software at all. For example, spear phishing is a type of phishing attack that targets a specific individual or organization with personalized or customized emails; SQL injection is a type of attack that inserts malicious SQL statements into an input field or parameter of a web application to manipulate or compromise the underlying database; on-path is a type of attack that intercepts and modifies the data in transit between two parties on a network. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following is a characteristic of all non-relational databases?
- A. Columns with the same data type
- B. Unstructured data
- C. Tabular schema
- D. Logical record groupings
Answer: B
Explanation:
The characteristic of all non-relational databases is unstructured data. Unstructured data is data that does not have a predefined or fixed format, schema, or structure. Unstructured data can include various types of data, such as text, images, audio, video, etc. Non-relational databases, also known as NoSQL databases, are databases that store and manage unstructured data using different models, such as key-value, document, graph, columnar, etc. Non-relational databases are suitable for handling large volumes, variety, and velocity of data that do not fit well in the relational model. The other options are either characteristics of relational databases or not related to database types at all. For example, columns with the same data type, logical record groupings, and tabular schema are characteristics of relational databases, which are databases that store and manage structured data using tables, rows, columns, and constraints. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify common database types.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A business analyst is using a client table and an invoice table to create a database view that shows clients who have not made purchases yet. Which of the following joins is most appropriate for the analyst to use to create this database view?
- A. RIGHT JOIN ON Client.Key = Invoice.Key WHERE BY Client.Key IS NOLL
- B. INNER JOIN ON Client.Key = Invoice.Key
- C. LEFT JOIN ON Client.Key = Invoice.Key
- D. LEFT JOIN ON Client.Key = Invoice.Key WHERE BY Invoice.Key IS NOLL
Answer: D
Explanation:
The join that is most appropriate for the analyst to use to create this database view is option D. This join uses the LEFT JOIN clause to combine the client table and the invoice table based on the matching values in the Key column. The WHERE clause filters out the rows where the Invoice.Key column is not null, meaning that the client has made a purchase. The result is a view that shows only the clients who have not made any purchases yet. The other options either do not produce the desired result or have syntax errors. For example, option A would show only the clients who have made purchases, option B would show only the invoices that do not have a matching client, and option C would show all the clients regardless of their purchase status. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which of the following is an advantage of creating indexes?
- A. To provide quick and efficient access to data
- B. To help with space allocation
- C. To update the query plan
- D. To reduce memory
Answer: A
Explanation:
The advantage of creating indexes is to provide quick and efficient access to data. An index is a data structure that stores the values of one or more columns of a table in a sorted order, along with pointers to the corresponding rows in the table. An index helps to speed up queries that search, filter, sort, or join data based on the indexed columns, as it reduces the number of disk accesses or scans required to locate the desired data. An index also helps to enforce uniqueness or referential integrity constraints on the indexed columns. The other options are either not true or not relevant for this purpose. For example, an index does not help with space allocation, as it consumes additional space in the database; an index does not reduce memory, as it may use memory for caching or buffering purposes; an index does not update the query plan, as it is an input or a factor for the query optimizer to generate the query plan. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following cloud storage options provides users with endpoints to retrieve data via REST API?
- A. Ephemeral
- B. Object
- C. Network file
- D. iBIock
Answer: B
Explanation:
The cloud storage option that provides users with endpoints to retrieve data via REST API is object. Object storage is a type of cloud storage that stores data as objects, which consist of data, metadata, and a unique identifier. Object storage does not use any hierarchy or structure to organize data, but rather uses flat namespaces that allow users to access data using the unique identifier. Object storage also provides users with endpoints to retrieve data via REST API (Representational State Transfer Application Programming Interface), which is a standard way of communicating with web services using HTTP methods (such as GET, POST, PUT, DELETE) and formats (such as JSON, XML). Object storage is suitable for storing large amounts of unstructured data that do not require frequent changes or complex queries. The other options are either different types of cloud storage or not related to cloud storage at all. For example, network file storage is a type of cloud storage that stores data as files in folders using protocols such as NFS (Network File System) or SMB (Server Message Block); ephemeral storage is a type of temporary storage that stores data only for the duration of a session or process; iBIock is not a valid acronym or type of cloud storage. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.1 Given a scenario, select an appropriate database deployment method.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A company needs information about the performance of users in the sales department. Which of the following commands should a database administrator use for this task?
- A. InPDATE
- B. ISELECT
- C. [delete
- D. DROP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The command that the database administrator should use for this task is SELECT. The SELECT command is a SQL statement that retrieves data from one or more tables or views in a database. The SELECT command can also use various clauses or options to filter, group, sort, or aggregate data according to specific criteria or conditions. By using the SELECT command, the database administrator can obtain information about the performance of users in the sales department, such as their sales volume, revenue, commission, etc. The other options are either not related or not suitable for this task. For example, DROP is a SQL command that deletes an existing table or object from a database; UPDATE is a SQL command that modifies existing data in one or more rows of a table; DELETE is a SQL command that removes existing data from one or more rows of a table. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following are the best resources for monitoring potential server issues? (Choose two.)
- A. Query execution
- B. User connections
- C. Index usage
- D. CPU usage
- E. Firewall usage
- F. Memory usage
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
The two resources that are best for monitoring potential server issues are CPU usage and memory usage. CPU usage is the percentage of time that the processor (CPU) of the server is busy executing instructions or processes. CPU usage indicates how much workload the server can handle and how fast it can process requests. High CPU usage may affect the performance or availability of the server and cause delays or errors. Memory usage is the amount of physical memory (RAM) or virtual memory (swap space) that the server uses to store data or run applications. Memory usage indicates how much space the server has to store temporary or intermediate data or results. High memory usage may affect the performance or availability of the server and cause swapping or paging. The other options are either not relevant or not direct indicators of server health. For example, user connections are the number of users who are connected to a database server at any given time; firewall usage is the amount of data that passes through a firewall device or software; index usage is the frequency or efficiency of using indexes on tables to speed up queries; query execution is the process of running SQL statements on a database server. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, monitor database performance.
NEW QUESTION # 42
An automated script is using common passwords to gain access to a remote system. Which of the following attacks is being performed?
- A. Phishing
- B. DoS
- C. SQL injection
- D. Brute-force
Answer: D
Explanation:
The attack that is being performed is brute-force. A brute-force attack is a type of attack that tries to guess a password or a key by systematically trying all possible combinations of characters or values until the correct one is found. A brute-force attack can use common passwords, such as "123456", "password", or "qwerty", as well as dictionaries, word lists, or patterns to speed up the process. A brute-force attack can target a remote system, such as a web server, an email account, or a network device, and gain unauthorized access to its data or resources. The other options are either different types of attacks or not related to password guessing. For example, a DoS, or Denial-of-Service, attack is a type of attack that floods a system with requests or traffic to overwhelm its capacity and prevent legitimate users from accessing it; an SQL injection attack is a type of attack that inserts malicious SQL statements into an input field or parameter of a web application to manipulate or compromise the underlying database; a phishing attack is a type of attack that sends fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from a trusted source to trick users into revealing their personal or financial information. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following firewall types allows an administrator to control traffic and make decisions based on factors such as connection information and data flow communications?
- A. Circuit-level
- B. Proxy
- C. Packet
- D. Stateful
Answer: D
Explanation:
The firewall type that allows an administrator to control traffic and make decisions based on factors such as connection information and data flow communications is stateful. A stateful firewall is a type of firewall that tracks the state of each connection and packet that passes through it, and applies rules or policies based on the context and content of the traffic. A stateful firewall can control traffic and make decisions based on factors such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, session status, application layer data, etc. The other options are either different types of firewalls or not related to firewalls at all. For example, a circuit-level firewall is a type of firewall that monitors and validates the establishment of TCP or UDP connections; a proxy firewall is a type of firewall that acts as an intermediary between the source and destination of the traffic; a packet firewall is a type of firewall that filters packets based on their header information. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.
NEW QUESTION # 44
A database administrator needs to ensure that a newly installed corporate business intelligence application can access the company's transactional dat a. Which of the following tasks should the administrator perform first?
- A. Set up a nightly FTP data transfer from the database server to the business intelligence application server.
- B. Send the business intelligence administrator the approved TNS names file to configure the data mapping.
- C. Create a new service account exclusively for the business intelligence application.
- D. Open a new port on the database server exclusively for the business intelligence application.
- E. Build a separate data warehouse customized to the business intelligence application's specifications.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first task that the administrator should perform is to create a new service account exclusively for the business intelligence application. This will ensure that the application has the appropriate permissions and credentials to access the company's transactional data. The other options are either unnecessary, inefficient, or insecure. For example, building a separate data warehouse would require additional resources and time, setting up a nightly FTP data transfer would expose the data to potential breaches, sending the TNS names file would not guarantee that the application can connect to the database, and opening a new port on the database server would create a vulnerability for attackers. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.1 Given a scenario, install and configure database software and tools.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following is a potential issue raised by enterprise database users?
- A. The need for multiple views or windows into the same database
- B. The need for concurrent access and multiuser updates
- C. The need to manually transfer records to paper
- D. The need to manage long transactions
Answer: B
Explanation:
A potential issue raised by enterprise database users is the need for concurrent access and multiuser updates. Concurrent access means that multiple users can access the same data at the same time, while multiuser updates mean that multiple users can modify the same data at the same time. These features are essential for enterprise database users who need to share and collaborate on data in real time. However, they also pose challenges such as maintaining data consistency, preventing conflicts or errors, and ensuring transaction isolation and durability. The other options are either not issues or not specific to enterprise database users. For example, the need for multiple views or windows into the same database may be a preference or a convenience, but not an issue; the need to manage long transactions may be a challenge for any database user, not just enterprise ones; the need to manually transfer records to paper may be an outdated or inefficient practice, but not an issue. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.3 Given a scenario, identify common database issues.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following can be used to protect physical database appliances from damage in a server room? (Choose two.)
- A. Biometric access systems
- B. Database control systems
- C. Fire suppression systems
- D. Cooling systems
- E. Key card systems
- F. Camera systems
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The two options that can be used to protect physical database appliances from damage in a server room are fire suppression systems and cooling systems. Fire suppression systems are systems that detect and extinguish fires in a server room using water, gas, foam, or other agents. Fire suppression systems help prevent damage to physical database appliances caused by fire hazards such as overheating, electrical faults, or flammable materials. Cooling systems are systems that regulate the temperature and humidity in a server room using fans, air conditioners, chillers, or other devices. Cooling systems help prevent damage to physical database appliances caused by excessive heat or moisture that may affect their performance or lifespan. The other options are either not related or not effective for this purpose. For example, biometric access systems, camera systems, and key card systems are systems that control the access to a server room using fingerprints, facial recognition, video surveillance, or magnetic cards; these systems help prevent unauthorized entry or theft of physical database appliances, but not damage caused by environmental factors; database control systems are systems that manage the functionality and security of databases using software tools or commands; these systems help protect logical database appliances from errors or attacks, but not physical damage caused by environmental factors. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.4 Given a scenario, implement disaster recovery methods.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following have data manipulation and procedural scripting power? (Choose two.)
- A. Advanced
- B. SQL
- C. T-SQL
- D. PQL
- E. PL/SQL
- F. SQL
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
The two options that have data manipulation and procedural scripting power are PL/SQL and T-SQL. PL/SQL, or Procedural Language/Structured Query Language, is an extension of SQL that adds procedural features to SQL for Oracle databases. PL/SQL allows users to create and execute stored procedures, functions, triggers, packages, etc., using variables, loops, conditions, exceptions, etc., in addition to SQL commands. PL/SQL helps improve the performance, functionality, modularity, and security of SQL queries and applications. T-SQL, or Transact-SQL, is an extension of SQL that adds procedural features to SQL for Microsoft SQL Server databases. T-SQL allows users to create and execute stored procedures, functions, triggers, etc., using variables, loops, conditions, exceptions, etc., in addition to SQL commands. T-SQL helps improve the performance, functionality, modularity, and security of SQL queries and applications. The other options are either not related or not having both data manipulation and procedural scripting power. For example, PQL, or Power Query Language, is a data analysis and transformation language for Microsoft Power BI and Excel; Advanced SQL is a term that refers to the advanced features or techniques of SQL, such as subqueries, joins, aggregations, etc.; SQL, or Structured Query Language, is a standard language for manipulating and querying data in relational databases, but it does not have procedural features. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 48
A DBA is reviewing the following logs to determine the current data backup plan for a primary data server:
Which of the following best describes this backup plan?
- A. Weekly full, daily incremental
- B. Daily full
- C. Daily differential
- D. Monthly full, daily differential
Answer: A
Explanation:
The backup plan that best describes the logs is weekly full, daily incremental. This means that a full backup of the entire database is performed once a week, and then only the changes made since the last backup are backed up every day. This can be inferred from the logs by looking at the size and duration of the backups. The full backups are larger and take longer than the incremental backups, and they occur every seven days. The other backup plans do not match the pattern of the logs. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.2 Given a scenario, implement backup and restoration of database management systems.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following sets the age requirement for data that should be recovered after a major disaster?
- A. MTTF
- B. RPO
- C. RTO
- D. MTBF
Answer: B
Explanation:
The option that sets the age requirement for data that should be recovered after a major disaster is RPO. RPO, or Recovery Point Objective, is a metric that defines the maximum amount of data that can be lost or acceptable data loss in the event of a disaster or disruption. RPO indicates how frequently the data should be backed up or replicated to minimize the risk of data loss. RPO also sets the age requirement for data that should be recovered after a major disaster, as it determines how far back in time the recovery process should go. For example, if the RPO is one hour, then the data should be backed up or replicated every hour, and the recovery process should restore the data to the state it was in one hour before the disaster. The other options are either different metrics or not related to data recovery at all. For example, MTBF, or Mean Time Between Failures, is a metric that measures the average time that a system or component operates without failure; RTO, or Recovery Time Objective, is a metric that defines the maximum amount of time that can be taken to restore a system or service after a disaster or disruption; MTTF, or Mean Time To Failure, is a metric that measures the average time that a system or component operates until it fails. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.3 Given a scenario, implement backup and restoration of data.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A DBA left the company, and the DBA's account was removed from the system. Soon after, scheduled jobs began failing.
Which of the following would have most likely prevented this issue?
- A. Load balancing
- B. Assigning a data steward
- C. Business continuity plan
- D. Service accounts
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely way to prevent this issue is to use service accounts. Service accounts are special accounts that are used by applications or services to perform tasks or run jobs on behalf of users. Service accounts have limited permissions and access rights that are tailored to their specific functions. By using service accounts, the DBA can ensure that scheduled jobs can run independently of individual user accounts, and avoid failures due to account removal or changes. The other options are either not related or not effective for this issue. For example, load balancing is a technique that distributes the workload across multiple servers or resources to improve performance and availability; business continuity plan is a plan that outlines how an organization will continue its operations in the event of a disaster or disruption; assigning a data steward is a process that designates a person who is responsible for ensuring the quality and governance of data. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.3 Given a scenario, migrate data between databases.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following describes the purpose of a snapshot?
- A. To create an image of a database
- B. To create a dynamic data replication
- C. To create a synonym
- D. To create a
Answer: A
Explanation:
The purpose of a snapshot is to create an image of a database. A snapshot is a copy of the state and content of a database at a specific point in time. A snapshot can be used for various purposes, such as backup and recovery, testing and development, reporting and analysis, etc. A snapshot can be created using various techniques, such as full copy, incremental copy, differential copy, etc. A snapshot can also be created using various tools or commands provided by the database system or software. The other options are either incorrect or irrelevant for this question. For example, dynamic data replication is a process that copies and synchronizes data from one database server (the source) to one or more database servers (the target) in real time; a synonym is an alias or an alternative name for an object in a database; C is an incomplete option. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.2 Given a scenario, implement backup and restoration of database management systems.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following services is responsible for assigning, managing, and reclaiming IP addresses on a TCP/IP-based network?
- A. LDAP
- B. ISMTP
- C. DNS
- D. DHCP
Answer: D
Explanation:
The service that is responsible for assigning, managing, and reclaiming IP addresses on a TCP/IP-based network is DHCP. DHCP, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, is a service that automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters, such as subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server, etc., to computers or devices on a network. DHCP helps simplify the administration and management of IP addresses on a network, as well as avoid conflicts or errors caused by manual or duplicate assignments. DHCP also allows computers or devices to release or renew their IP addresses when they join or leave the network. The other options are either different services or not related to IP addresses at all. For example, DNS, or Domain Name System, is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses and vice versa; LDAP, or Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, is a service that provides access to directory information such as users, groups, or devices on a network; ISMTP is not a valid acronym or service. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.1 Given a scenario, select an appropriate database deployment method.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Over the weekend, a company's transaction database was moved to an upgraded server. All validations performed after the migration indicated that the database was functioning as expected. However, on Monday morning, multiple users reported that the corporate reporting application was not working.
Which of the following are the most likely causes? (Choose two.)
- A. The reporting application's mapping to the database location was not updated.
- B. The reporting application cannot keep up with the new, faster response from the database.
- C. The new database server has its own reporting system, so the old one is not needed.
- D. The access permissions for the service account used by the reporting application were not changed.
- E. The database server is not permitted to fulfill requests from a reporting application.
- F. The reporting jobs that could not process during the database migration have locked the application.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The most likely causes of the reporting application not working are that the access permissions for the service account used by the reporting application were not changed, and that the reporting application's mapping to the database location was not updated. These two factors could prevent the reporting application from accessing the new database server. The other options are either irrelevant or unlikely to cause the problem. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, troubleshoot common database issues.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A database administrator is migrating the information in a legacy table to a newer table. Both tables contain the same columns, and some of the data may overlap.
Which of the following SQL commands should the administrator use to ensure that records from the two tables are not duplicated?
- A. UNION
- B. JOIN
- C. IINTERSECT
- D. CROSS JOIN
Answer: A
Explanation:
The SQL command that the administrator should use to ensure that records from the two tables are not duplicated is option A. This command uses the UNION clause to combine the records from the legacy table and the newer table into a single result set. The UNION clause also eliminates any duplicate records that may exist in both tables, and sorts the result by default. The other options either do not produce the desired result or have syntax errors. For example, option B would join the records from the two tables based on a common column, but not remove any duplicates; option C would return only the records that are common to both tables, but not the ones that are unique to each table; option D would produce a Cartesian product of the records from the two tables, which would increase the number of duplicates. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A server administrator wants to analyze a database server's disk throughput. Which of the following should the administrator measure?
- A. RPfvl
- B. Latency
- C. Reads
- D. IOPS
Answer: D
Explanation:
The factor that the administrator should measure to analyze a database server's disk throughput is IOPS. IOPS, or Input/Output Operations Per Second, is a metric that measures the number of read and write operations that a disk can perform in one second. IOPS indicates the performance or speed of a disk and how well it can handle multiple requests or transactions. Higher IOPS means higher disk throughput and lower latency. IOPS can be affected by various factors, such as disk type, size, speed, cache, RAID level, etc. The other options are either not related or not sufficient for this purpose. For example, RPfvl is not a valid acronym or metric; latency is the time delay between a request and a response; reads are the number of read operations performed by a disk. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, monitor database performance.
NEW QUESTION # 56
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